JMI BEd PYQ 2023 || Jamia BEd Previous Year Question with Explanation

In This Blog we will cover JMI BEd PYQ 2023 along with answer and Explanation, Complete Jamia BEd Previous year Question Paper 2023 Solution

JMI BEd PYQ with Explanation

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JMI BEd PYQ 2023

BEd 2023 PYQ

Here are questions 1 to 100 extracted from the JMI B.Ed 2023 paper, formatted with 4 options, answers, and explanations:

Q. 1. Which of the following is NOT a language skill?

(A) Reading

(B) Writing

(D) Problem solving

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 2. The study of sounds of human speech is:

(A) Morphology

(B) Semantics

(D) Stylistics

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 3. Which of the following is NOT a function of language?

(A) Informative

(B) Expressive

(D) Securing

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 4. What are the different types of meaning making?

(a) conceptual (b) cultural (c) individual (d) logical (e) conative (f) social (g) thematic

(A) Only (a), (c), (e) & (f)

(B) Only (c), (d), (e)

(D) All

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 5. ‘Language is arbitrary’ means that:

(A) It is determined by judgement for a specific reason.

(B) It is based on valid reason and not by chance.

(D) There is no inherent relationship between the words of a language and its meaning.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 6. Each language has unique sounds, structures and vocabulary. This means that:

(A) Language is arbitrary

(B) Language is a skill subject

(D) Language is species specific

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 7. Which of the following is a language rich classroom environment?

(A) Language lab

(B) Language games

(D) Only English is spoken.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 8. Which of the following is the use of story telling in a language class?

(A) Engage learners in language learning.

(B) Teaching the morals.

(D) Make them recall.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 9. The ability to write concisely by making us aware of the kind of details that can be avoided to achieve precision is known as a skill of

(A) Note making

(B) Summarizing

(D) Notes editing

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 10. One who is able to use both right and left (hands equally well) is called:

(A) Ambivalent

(B) Ambitious

(D) Ambidextrous

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 11. The term Language is derived from:

(A) Arabic

(B) Latin

(D) Persian

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 12. Life history of a person written by another is called:

(A) Biography

(B) Memoir

(D) Bibliography

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 13. A child of unusual talent is called:

(A) Protagonist

(B) Prodigy

(D) Prototype

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 14. Language is purely _____ method of communication.

(A) Clear and common

(B) Continuous and clever

(D) Active and sure

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 15. According to Chomsky “Language is a set of _____ sentences.”

(A) finite and infinite

(B) continuous and comprehensive

(D) Instinctive and purposive

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 16. Language involves _____ formation.

(A) Habit

(B) Character

(D) Rule

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 17. Language changes according to the needs of:

(A) Society

(B) Mood

(D) Rules

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 18. Which of the following is the setting that enables the medium of language learning?

(A) Culture

(B) Books

(D) Gender

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 19. Which of the following is a graphic representation of speech?

(A) Reading

(B) Speaking

(D) Listening

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 20. We can convey a message best through:

(A) Script

(B) Gestures

(D) All of the above

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 21. Who among the following is the Minister of Education in the union cabinet from July 2021?

(A) Shri Dharmendra Pradhan

(B) Shri Arjun Munda

(D) Smt. Smriti Irani

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 22. Who was the first education minister of union cabinet of Independent India?

(A) Humayun Kabir

(B) Kalu Lal Shrimali

(D) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 23. Who among the following is the Minister of Health and Family welfare in the present Union Cabinet?

(A) Shri G. Kishan Reddy

(B) Shri Mansukh Mandaviya

(D) Shri Jyotiraditya M. Sindhiya

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 24. Who is the Chief Election Commissioner in India who took charge in May 2022?

(A) Dr. Nasim Zaidi

(B) Shri Rajiv Kumar

(D) Mr. Sushil Chandra

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 25. Who was the first President of Independent India?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan

(D) Dr. Zakir Husain

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 26. Which of the following won the final match of Ranji Trophy held in February 2023?

(A) Bengal

(B) Saurashtra

(D) Karnataka

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 27. Who among the following won the world women Boxing Championship Gold medal in Delhi in 2023 in the 48 Kg Category?

(A) Nitu Ghanghas

(B) Mary Kom

(D) Sarita Devi

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 28. Which team won the Men’s FIH Hockey world cup 2023?

(A) Australia

(B) India

(D) Belgium

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 29. Which of the following countries won the FIFA world cup 2022?

(A) France

(B) Germany

(D) Brazil

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 30. Which of the following cities obtained the credit of having hosted both winter and summer Olympic Games?

(A) Beijing

(B) Tokyo

(D) London

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 31. The Aravalli range is in which of the following states or Union territories?

(A) Uttarakhand

(B) Bihar

(D) Haryana

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 32. Kanha National Park is in which of the following states or Union territories?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Haryana

(D) Punjab

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 33. Which of the following rivers is NOT originating from Western Ghat?

(A) Krishna

(B) Godavari

(D) Kaveri

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 34. Which of the following is known as Green Planet?

(A) Earth

(B) Uranus

(D) Neptune

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 35. The layer of the atmosphere which contains the Ozone layer is:

(A) Troposphere

(B) Stratosphere

(D) Ionosphere

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 36. Which of the following is NOT a kharif crop?

(A) Wheat

(B) Rice

(D) Bajra

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 37. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

(A) Power

(B) Energy

(D) Speed

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 38. The instrument used to measure relative humidity is:

(A) Hygrometer

(B) Hydrometer

(D) Venturi meter

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 39. The defect of the eye which can be removed by using suitable cylindrical lens is:

(A) Myopia

(B) Presbyopia

(D) Astigmatism

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 40. The composition of natural gas is:

(A) Carbon Monoxide and Hydrogen

(B) Hydrogen and methane

(D) Nitrogen and Carbon Monoxide

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 41. The Right of minorities to establish and administer education institutions is according to which of the following:

(A) Article 30

(B) Article 20

(D) Article 19

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 42. The right for preventing exploitation of children by the Prohibition of employment in any factories etc is according to which of the following?

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 19

(D) Article 23

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 43. The Directive principle of the state policy which mentions provision of early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years is according to which of the following?

(A) Article 43

(B) Article 44

(D) Article 46

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 44. Which of the following constitutional amendments added Right to Education by which each parent or guardian is to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age 6 and 14 years?

(A) 52nd Amendment

(B) 73rd Amendment

(D) 103rd Amendment

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 45. The fundamental duties have been inserted by which of the following constitutional amendments?

(A) 52nd Amendment

(B) 73rd Amendment

(D) 103rd Amendment

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 46. The Booker Prize 2022 was won by:

(A) Shehan Karunatilaka

(B) NoViolet Bulawayo

(D) Alan Garner

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 47. Who was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke award in 2022?

(A) Amitabh Bachchan

(B) Rajnikanth

(D) Rekha

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 48. The Oscar award 2023 for best original song was from which film?

(A) RRR

(B) Naatu Naatu

(D) The Elephant Whispers

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 49. The Pulitzer Prize is awarded to the following categories except:

(A) Journalism

(B) Books

(D) Painting

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 50. Abel Prize laureate 2023 is:

(A) Luis A Caffarelli

(B) Dennis Parnell Sullivan

(D) Avi Wigderson

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 51. Disease: Pathology :: Planet: ?

(A) Astrology

(B) Galaxy

(D) Cosmology

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 52. Thermometer: Degree :: Clock: ?

(A) Watch

(B) Time

(D) Hour

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 53. 5, 9, 15, 23, 33, 45, ?

(A) 54

(B) 56

(D) 59

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 54. 13, 25, 51, 101, 203, ?

(A) 403

(B) 404

(D) 408

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 55. A, C, E, G, I, ?

(A) J

(B) K

(D) M

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 56. ABZY, CDXW, EFVU, ?

(A) KLAB

(B) JKCD

(D) GHTS

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 57. PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, then PEARL is coded as:

(A) 29534

(B) 24193

(D) 24153

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 58. If in a certain code SISTER is coded as 535301, UNCLE is coded as 84670 and BOY as 129, how SON is coded?

(A) 823

(B) 524

(D) 782

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 59. Find the Odd one:

(A) Mercury

(B) Bromine

(D) Aluminum

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 60. Find the Odd one:

(A) 9521

(B) 2681

(D) 2565

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 61. Find the Odd one:

(A) Square

(B) Triangle

(D) Rectangle

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 62. If P is the brother of Q, R is the sister of S, and P’s son is S’s brother, then how Q is related to R?

(A) Sister

(B) Brother

(D) Nephew

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 63. A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt.” How is the man related to the lady?

(A) Uncle

(B) Brother

(D) Cousin

Answer:

Explanation:

Q64-67 Read the following information and answer the following questions.

B and E are good in Dramatics and Computer science; A and B are good in Computer science and Physics; A, D and C are good in Physics and History; C and A are good in Physics and Mathematics. D and E are good in History and Dramatics.

Q. 64. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics but not in Computer science?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) D

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 65. Who is good in Computer science, History and Dramatics?

(A) A

(B) D

(D) E

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 66. Who is good in Physics, Dramatics and Computer science?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) D

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 67. Who is good in Physics, Mathematics, History and Computer science?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) D

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 68. Which of the following is an example of synchronous online learning?

(A) e-mail

(B) file attachments

(D) video conferencing

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 69. Family is a means of:

(A) Formal education

(B) Informal Education

(D) Non formal education

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 70. If a student is coming to classs late, you will:

(A) Punish him/her

(B) Inform the parents

(D) ignore it

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 71. How are analogies most helpful in teaching and learning?

(A) They make the unfamiliar situations familiar.

(B) They make the class interesting.

(D) They encourage student participation.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 72. Which of the following would be the most appropriate activity to teach students about different kinds of animals and their habits?

(A) Tell an interesting story about animals.

(B) Show the pictures of different animals to students.

(D) Take the students on a visit to the zoo.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 73. Which of the following is the most suitable rationale to be given in favour of conducting group activities.

(A) they make learning fun.

(B) They provide an opportunity to students to learn from each other.

(D) They are helpful in covering the syllabus in time.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 74. Which of the following is NOT a desirable practice to be adopted by teachers?

(A) Give examples that students can relate with.

(B) Begin the lesson with students’ pervious knowledge.

(D) Ask questions only when they have finished teaching a chapter.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 75. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that you would associate with an effective teacher?

(A) willing to learn

(B) open minded

(D) accessible

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 76. Which of the following statements about children’s learning is correct?

(A) All children learn in the same manner and should be taught similarly.

(B) The fear of exam is a good motivation for learning.

(D) Children begin to form explanations of various events only after starting school.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 77. Which of the following is the most suitable rationale to be given in favour of conducting ‘team teaching’ (a group of two or more teachers working together to teach)?

(A) Students get the benefit of varied expertise and skills.

(B) The strategy is helpful for maintaining discipline.

(D) The strategy is considered progressive by educationists.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 78. Which of the following is true of open-ended questions?

(A) They are questions that can be answered from memory.

(B) They require imaginative thinking.

(D) They usually have one correct answer.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 79. You get to know that a student of your class has lost both her parents to COVID. How would you treat this child?

(A) Assign her lesser and easier work

(B) Provide her with caring and stable environment

(D) Treat her at par with other students.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 80. Which of the following should a teacher most focus on to help students learn effectively?

(A) Teach students the tricks to get better marks.

(B) Ensure that students engage with the concepts.

(D) Hand out detailed notes to students.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 81. Which of the following is a desirable classroom practice to be adopted by teacher?

(A) Dividing the class into groups called ‘bright’ and ‘weak students’.

(B) Insisting that students only spek in the language which is the medium of instruction of the school.

(D) Asking students to participate in the process of framing the classroom rules.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 82. Which of the following is the LEAST relevant reason for planning of the lessons by teachers?

(A) Helpful in time management

(B) Helpful learning process

(D) Helpful in achievement of curricular objectives.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 83. Which of the following would be to most appropriate strategy to teach a complex performance-based task to students?

(A) explain the steps

(B) provide references and reading materials.

(D) break up the task into smaller steps and offer help.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 84. Which of the following is NOT a desirable educational objective of organizing cultural events in schools?

(A) to encourage students to outperform one another

(B) to identify talent

(D) to promote social collaboration

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 85. “The teacher has not taught until the student has learnt.” Select the option that bring out the central idea of this statement.

(A) Teaching and learning to together.

(B) One can never be sure whether a student has learnt or not.

(D) Teaching and learning are complex activities.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 86. Which of the following would you NOT consider to be an aim of education?

(A) to prepare informed citizens.

(B) to promote social cohesion by instilling a sense of unity.

(D) to develop students’ ability to contribute to society.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 87. You find out that a student of your class is a compulsive liar and has not given up his habit despite your efforts. What would you do?

(A) disallow him from attending school till he improves his ways.

(B) seek the help of school counsellor.

(D) Ignore his behavior.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 88. “Values are caught and not taught.” Select the school practice that is MOST in consonance with the central idea of this statement.

(A) organization of lectures by holy men and women.

(B) inclusion of value education as a theme for poster making and wall magazine competitions.

(D) introducing value education as a special subject in the school curriculum.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 89. Which of the following is true regarding the curricular practices currently being followed in schools?

(A) Physics, Chemistry and Biology are introduced as separate subjects in class 6.

(B) Science and Social science are integratedly taught as Environmental Studies in primary classes.

(D) Mathematics and science are integratedly taught as ‘science and technology’ in elementary classes.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 90. Which of the following is a desirable practice that you would associate with a teacher teaching a batch of first generation learners?

(A) Expect less from the students

(B) Omit certain portions of the syllabus that are considered difficult.

(D) Be flexible in assignment submission schedules.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 91. What is the child sex ratio in India as per 2011 census?

(A) 976

(B) 919

(D) 914

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 92. What is the sex ratio in India as per 2011 census?

(A) 943

(B) 933

(D) 940

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 93. The infant mortality rate in India in 2023 is about:

(A) 40

(B) 27

(D) 36

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 94. If a student asks a question for which the teacher is unable to answer, then you will?

(A) Scold the child.

(B) Feel embarrassed and shy.

(D) Say that he will answer after consultation.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 95. Democracy in the classroom is reflected through:

(A) Allow students to do what they want with freedom.

(B) Allow female students more freedom saying that they are sincere.

(D) Allow students to partake in decisions within rules and regulations.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 96. The approval for running the degree or diploma in Teacher Education is provided by:

(A) CBSE

(B) NCTE

(D) SCERT

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 97. The foundational stage of education according to NEP 2020 includes:

(A) Primary and Middle

(B) Nursery and Primary

(D) Elementary and Nursery

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 98. DIETs were started after:

(A) Kothari Commission

(B) NPE 1968

(D) NEP 2020

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 99. Samagra Shiksha subsumes the following except:

(A) Unnath Bharat Abhyan

(B) Sarva Shiksha Abhyan

(D) Teacher Education

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 100. The project method originated from the philosophy of:

(A) John Dewey

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Sigmund Freud

Answer:

Explanation:

Q. 101. Which of the following is true with regard to the system of ‘open schooling’ in India?

(A) The curricula and learning materials are inferior to those of formal schooling.

(B) It is a recent system of education that was established in the wake of COVID-19

(D) Its scope is limited to providing short term vocational and skill based courses.

Answer: (C) It gives a second chance’ to learners who lost out or dropped out of formal schooling.

Explanation: Open schooling in India (like NIOS) is primarily designed to provide flexible, universal access to education, offering a second chance to dropouts, older learners, and those who cannot attend formal regular schools.

Q. 102. Which of the following is a characteristic that you would associate with an effective teacher?

(A) Discourages rote memorization

(B) Discourages self study

(D) Discourages outdoor educational activities

Answer: (A) Discourages rote memorization

Explanation: An effective teacher promotes conceptual understanding, critical thinking, and active learning rather than passive rote memorization.

Q. 103. Which of the following is in consonance with the recommendations of NEP 2020?

(A) The existing 10+2 structure of school education to be replaced by 5+3+3+4 structure.

(B) Education to be recognized as a private commodity

(D) Monolingualism to be encouraged at every stage

Answer: (A) The existing 10+2 structure of school education to be replaced by 5+3+3+4 structure.

Explanation: One of the hallmark recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 is shifting the pedagogical structure from 10+2 to a 5+3+3+4 design.

Q. 104. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of CBSE?

(A) To prescribe conditions of examinations at the end of class X and XII.

(B) To monitor the quality of teacher education programmes

(D) To fulfill the educational requirements of those students whose parents are in transferable jobs.

Answer: (B) To monitor the quality of teacher education programmes

Explanation: Monitoring the quality and standards of teacher education programs in India is the specific statutory responsibility of the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not the CBSE.

Q. 105. Which constitutional amendment was responsible for bringing into effect the ‘Right to Education’ act?

(A) 21st

(B) 42nd

(D) 86th

Answer: (D) 86th

Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 inserted Article 21-A into the Constitution, establishing education as a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.

Q. 106. Which of these characteristics would you NOT associate with an effective teacher?

(A) possesses an ability to communicate

(B) has a good grasp over the subject

(D) listens attentively to students

Answer: (C) maintains distance from the students

Explanation: Effective teachers are approachable, empathetic, and build strong rapport with their students rather than maintaining strict, unapproachable distance.

Q. 107. Which of the following could be an effective strategy to encourage active learning in large-sized elementary classes?

(A) Teach through power point presentations.

(B) Facilitate group work

(D) Focus on content and not on individuals.

Answer: (B) Facilitate group work

Explanation: Group work breaks down large classes into smaller, manageable interactive clusters, ensuring that students actively collaborate and participate in the learning process.

Q. 108. Which of the following may NOT ordinarily be identified as corporal punishment?

(A) Making students attend extra classes

(B) caning the students

(D) subjecting students to mental harassment

Answer: (A) Making students attend extra classes

Explanation: Making students attend extra classes is an academic/pedagogical measure. The other options involve physical abuse (caning) or psychological/social abuse, which are punitive and harmful.

Q. 109. Which of the following is NOT a function of the school management committees?

(A) Monitor the working of the school.

(B) Prepare and recommend school development plan.

(D) Advise teachers on issues related to pedagogy and assessment.

Answer: (D) Advise teachers on issues related to pedagogy and assessment.

Explanation: School Management Committees (SMCs) mainly consist of parents and local community members who oversee school functioning, infrastructure, and grants. They are generally not pedagogical experts tasked with advising teachers on instructional methods.

Q. 110. Which of the following is an important objective of assessing children?

(A) to compare students in terms of their abilities

(B) to label students as ‘smart’, ‘average’ and ‘weak’

(D) to assess the effectiveness of the teaching strategies being adopted.

Answer: (D) to assess the effectiveness of the teaching strategies being adopted.

Explanation: Modern educational assessment is highly diagnostic. It primarily serves to help teachers evaluate how well their instructional strategies are working and where they need to adapt to help students learn better.

Q. 111. Which of the following is NOT a solution of the equation x – 3y = 5?

(A) (1/7, -34/21)

(B) (-3/5, -28/15)

(D) (3/7, 32/21)

Answer: (D) (3/7, 32/21)

Explanation: By substituting the values into the equation $x – 3y = 5$:

For (D), $3/7 – 3(32/21) = 3/7 – 32/7 = -29/7$ , which does not equal 5. *(Note: (C) also yields 3.5, indicating a potential typo in the source paper options, but D is mathematically incorrect as printed in the exam).*

Q. 112. Evaluate: $\frac{tan~30^{\circ}}{1 – tan^2~30^{\circ}}$ =

(A) $cos~60^{\circ}$

(B) $sin~60^{\circ}$

(D) $sin~30^{\circ}$

Answer: (B) $sin~60^{\circ}$

Explanation: Utilizing trigonometric values: $tan(30) = 1/\sqrt{3}$ .

Expression = $(1/\sqrt{3}) / (1 – 1/3) = (1/\sqrt{3}) / (2/3) = 3 / 2\sqrt{3} = \sqrt{3}/2$ .

The value of $sin(60^{\circ})$ is also $\sqrt{3}/2$ .

Q. 113. In what ratio does the line x – y – 2 = 0 divides the line segment joining (3, -1) and (8, 9)?

(A) 1:2

(B) 1:3

(D) 3:4 (Derived option)

Answer: (C) 2:3

Explanation: The ratio in which a line $ax+by+c=0$ divides a segment joining $(x_1, y_1)$ and $(x_2, y_2)$ is given by $-(ax_1+by_1+c) / (ax_2+by_2+c)$ .

Ratio = $-(3 – (-1) – 2) / (8 – 9 – 2) = -(2) / (-3) = 2/3$ .

Q. 114. If three coins are tossed simultaneously, then the probability of getting at least two heads is:

(A) 1/4

(B) 1/2

(D) 1/8

Answer: (B) 1/2

Explanation: When tossing 3 coins, the total number of outcomes is $2^3 = 8$ . The favorable outcomes (getting at least two heads) are HHH, HHT, HTH, and THH (4 outcomes). Probability = $4/8 = 1/2$ .

Q. 115. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 sq. cm. The radius of the base is 0.7 cm. The height of the cylinder will be:

(A) 1 cm

(B) 2 cm

(D) 4 cm

Answer: (A) 1 cm

Explanation: Formula for curved surface area = $2\pi r h$ .

$4.4 = 2 \times (22/7) \times 0.7 \times h$

$4.4 = 4.4 \times h$ , which means $h = 1$ cm.

Q. 116. Sum of n terms of the series $\sqrt{2} + \sqrt{8} + \sqrt{18} + \sqrt{32} + ……..$ is:

(A) n

(B) $[n(n+1)]$

(D) $\frac{[n(n+1)]}{\sqrt{2}}$

Answer: (D) $\frac{[n(n+1)]}{\sqrt{2}}$

Explanation: The series simplifies to $\sqrt{2} + 2\sqrt{2} + 3\sqrt{2} + 4\sqrt{2}…$

Taking $\sqrt{2}$ common: $\sqrt{2}(1 + 2 + 3 + … + n) = \sqrt{2} \times \frac{n(n+1)}{2}$ . By rationalizing, this equals $\frac{n(n+1)}{\sqrt{2}}$ .

Q. 117. Select the correct statement:

(A) A polynomial of degree n can have at the most n zeroes.

(B) A polynomial of degree n has exactly n-1 zeroes.

(D) A polynomial of degree n has exactly n zeroes.

Answer: (A) A polynomial of degree n can have at the most n zeroes.

Explanation: According to the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, a polynomial of degree *n* with real coefficients can have at most *n* real zeroes (roots).

Q. 118. What is the area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r?

(A) $r^2$

(B) $\frac{1}{2}r^2$

(D) $4r^2$

Answer: (A) $r^2$

Explanation: The largest triangle inscribed in a semi-circle has its base on the diameter (base = $2r$) and its maximum height equal to the radius ( $h = r$ ). Area = $\frac{1}{2} \times base \times height = \frac{1}{2} \times 2r \times r = r^2$ .

Q. 119. The rational number can also be written as:

(A) 0.3

(B) $3/10$

(D) $1/3$

Answer: (D) there might be some error in question. If you think any answer is correct do let me know

Explanation: The repeating decimal $0.333…$ is the equivalent fractional representation of $1/3$.

Q. 120. Identify the incorrect statement:

(A) All squares are rectangles.

(B) All squares are rhombuses.

(D) All rectangles are rhombuses.

Answer: (D) All rectangles are rhombuses.

Explanation: A rhombus must have all four sides of equal length. Rectangles have opposite sides equal, but not necessarily all four, so a rectangle is not inherently a rhombus.

Q. 121. Which of the following are the factors of $6a^2 + 3ab + 4bc + 8ac$ ?

(A) $(2a+3b)(3a+2c)$

(B) $(6a+2b)(a+c)$

(D) $(2a+c)(3a+2b)$

Answer: (C) $(3a+4c)(2a+b)$

Explanation: Factoring by grouping:

$3a(2a + b) + 4c(b + 2a) = (2a + b)(3a + 4c)$ .

Q. 122. What should be added to $\frac{-3}{5}$ to get -1?

(A) $\frac{2}{5}$

(B) $\frac{-2}{5}$

(D) $\frac{-4}{5}$

Answer: (B) $\frac{-2}{5}$

Explanation: Let $x$ be the number added.

$\frac{-3}{5} + x = -1 \Rightarrow x = -1 + \frac{3}{5} = \frac{-2}{5}$ .

Q. 123. Two identical solid cubes of side a are joined end to end. then the total surface area of the resulting cuboid is:

(A) $2a^2$

(B) $8a^2$

(D) $12a^2$

Answer: (C) $10a^2$

Explanation: Joining two cubes of side $a$ end-to-end forms a cuboid with length $l=2a$ , breadth $b=a$ , and height $h=a$ . Total Surface Area = $2(lb + bh + hl) = 2(2a^2 + a^2 + 2a^2) = 2(5a^2) = 10a^2$ .

Q. 124. The product of two numbers is 96. If the smaller one of these two numbers is doubled and the bigger one is increased by 4, then the product of the numbers increases by 160. The smaller number is:

(A) 4

(B) 8

(D) 16

Answer: (B) 8

Explanation: Let the numbers be $x$ and $y$ (where $x < y$ ). $xy = 96$ .

New condition: $(2x)(y + 4) = 96 + 160 = 256$ .

$2xy + 8x = 256 \Rightarrow 2(96) + 8x = 256 \Rightarrow 192 + 8x = 256 \Rightarrow 8x = 64 \Rightarrow x = 8$ .

Q. 125. What is the solution set of $6(x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2}) – 35(x + \frac{1}{x}) + 62 = 0$ ?

(A) $\{2, 3, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}\}$

(B) $\{2, 3, -2, -3\}$

(D) $\{2, 3, -2, \frac{1}{3}\}$

Answer: (A) $\{2, 3, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}\}$

Explanation: By substituting $y = x + 1/x$ , the equation transforms to $6(y^2 – 2) – 35y + 62 = 0$ , which yields $6y^2 – 35y + 50 = 0$ . Solving this gives $y = 5/2$ and $y = 10/3$ . Substituting back into $x + 1/x$ produces the roots 2, 1/2, 3, and 1/3.

Q. 126. What is the value of $(sin~x – cosec~x)(cos~x – sec~x)(tan~x + cot~x)$ obtained after simplification?

(A) $sec~x~cosec~x$

(B) $\frac{1}{sin~x~cos~x}$

(D) 1

Answer: (D) 1

Explanation: Simplifying the terms using base identities:

$=(sin~x – 1/sin~x) \times (cos~x – 1/cos~x) \times (sin~x/cos~x + cos~x/sin~x)$

$=(-cos^2 x / sin~x) \times (-sin^2 x / cos~x) \times (1 / sin~x~cos~x)$

$=(sin^2 x~cos^2 x) / (sin^2 x~cos^2 x) = 1$ .

Q. 127. A certain amount of money at simple interest becomes four times in 24 years. what is the rate of interest per annum?

(A) $12\frac{1}{2}\%$

(B) $8\frac{1}{2}\%$

(D) $6\frac{1}{2}\%$

Answer: (A) $12\frac{1}{2}\%$

Explanation: If an amount becomes 4 times, the Interest generated is $3P$.

Using $I = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100} \Rightarrow 3P = \frac{P \times R \times 24}{100} \Rightarrow R = \frac{300}{24} = 12.5\%$ .

Q. 128. If one of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial $x^3 + ax^2 + bx + c$ is -1, then the product of the other two zeroes is:

(A) $b – a + 1$

(B) $b – a – 1$

(D) $a – b – 1$

Answer: (A) $b – a + 1$

Explanation: Product of roots $\alpha\beta(-1) = -c \Rightarrow \alpha\beta = c$ .

Since -1 is a root, substituting $x = -1$ gives $(-1)^3 + a(-1)^2 + b(-1) + c = 0 \Rightarrow -1 + a – b + c = 0 \Rightarrow c = b – a + 1$ .

Q. 129. A person sold a table for Rs. 423 and incurred a loss of 6%. At what price would it be sold so as to earn a profit of 8%?

(A) 490

(B) 486

(D) 534

Answer: (B) 486

Explanation: Cost Price (CP) = $423 / 0.94 = 450$ .

New Selling Price for an 8% profit = $450 \times 1.08 = 486$ .

Q. 130. Namrata can do a job in 15 days. In how many days can Namrata and shruti together complete the job if Shruti is twice as fast as Namrata?

(A) 2 days

(B) 4 days

(D) 8 days

Answer: (C) 5 days

Explanation: Namrata’s efficiency is 1/15 per day. Shruti is twice as fast, so her efficiency is 2/15 per day. Together, they can do $\frac{1}{15} + \frac{2}{15} = \frac{3}{15} = \frac{1}{5}$ of the job per day. Therefore, it takes them 5 days.

Q. 131. Three identical bulbs of 60 W -200V rating are connected in series to a 200 V supply. What will be the power drawn by them?

(A) 200 W

(B) 60 W

(D) 10 W

Answer: (C) 20 W

Explanation: Resistance of one bulb $R = V^2 / P = 200^2 / 60$ . When 3 identical bulbs are in series, the equivalent resistance is $3R$ . The power drawn from a 200 V supply becomes $V^2 / 3R = P / 3 = 60 / 3 = 20$ W.

Q. 132. Identify the correct statement:

(A) A covex lens always forms a real image for all positions of the object.

(B) A convex mirror always forms a virtual image for all positions of the object.

(D) A concave mirror always forms a virtual image for all positions of the object.

Answer: (B) A convex mirror always forms a virtual image for all positions of the object.

Explanation: Regardless of where the object is placed in front of a convex mirror, the image is always virtual, erect, and diminished.

Q. 133. Which of the following will NOT undergo a reaction?

(A) $Zn + CuSO_4$

(B) $Zn + FeSO_4$

(D) $PbSO_4 + Fe$

Answer: (C) $Mg + CaSO_4$

Explanation: According to the reactivity series, Magnesium (Mg) is less reactive than Calcium (Ca). Thus, it cannot displace Calcium from Calcium Sulfate.

Q. 134. Read the following paragraph about sexual reproduction in plants and choose the correct option.

“After fertilization, the P divides several times to form an Q within the R. The R develops a tough coast and is gradually converted into a S. The T grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.”

P, Q, R, S and T are respective:

(A) zygote, embryo, ovule, seed, ovary

(B) zygote, embryo, ovary, stem, ovule

(D) embryo, zygote, ovule, stem, ovary

Answer: (A) zygote, embryo, ovule, seed, ovary

Explanation: This accurately describes plant reproduction: The zygote (P) divides to form an embryo (Q) within the ovule (R). The ovule becomes the seed (S), and the ovary (T) ripens into the fruit.

Q. 135. Which option explains Fleming’s left-hand rule to understand working of a motor?

(A) When a current carrying conductor is moved with force, it creates a magnetic field.

(B) When a conductor is moved inside a magnetic field, the current is produced in the conductor.

(D) When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force due to the magnetic field.

Answer: (D) When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force due to the magnetic field.

Explanation: Fleming’s left-hand rule determines the direction of the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor when placed inside an external magnetic field (the core principle behind an electric motor).

Q. 136. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of diameter 1 mm. How would the strength of the magnetic field at a given distance r change?

(A) It would become twice the earlier value

(B) It would become one half the earlier value.

(D) It would remain the same.

Answer: (D) It would remain the same.

Explanation: The magnetic field generated by a straight, long current-carrying wire at a distance $r$ is determined by Biot-Savart’s Law / Ampere’s Law ($B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r}$). It depends on the current passing through it and distance from the wire, not its diameter.

Q. 137. Study the following table:

| Harmone | Secreted by | Helps in |

| ——– | ——– | ——– |

| Insulin | X | Maintain glucose levels in blood |

| Thyroxine | Thyroid | Y |

| Growth hormone | Z | Controls growth and development of body |

X, Y and Z can respectively be replaced by which of the following?

(A) Adrenal gland, regulates response to stress, Pineal gland

(B) Pancreas, controls metabolism, Pituitary gland

(D) Pineal gland, regulates response to stress, pancreas

Answer: (B) Pancreas, controls metabolism, Pituitary gland

Explanation: Insulin is secreted by the Pancreas (X). Thyroxine regulates the body’s basal metabolic rate (Y). Growth hormone is secreted by the Pituitary gland (Z).

Q. 138. Which of the following hormones is responsible for triggering the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants?

(A) cytokinin

(B) Gibberellin

(D) Auxin

Answer: (C) Abscisic acid

Explanation: Abscisic acid is an inhibitory plant hormone that primarily promotes the senescence (aging) and abscission (falling off) of leaves and fruits.

Q. 139. On his way to the market, Rajiv calculates his average speed to be 20 km/h. On his way back along the same route, the average speed was 30 km/h. What is the average speed of his trip?

(A) 25 km/h

(B) 24 km/h

(D) 8 km/h

Answer: (B) 24 km/h

Explanation: For identical distances covered at speeds $a$ and $b$, the average speed formula is $\frac{2ab}{a+b}$.

$\frac{2 \times 20 \times 30}{20 + 30} = \frac{1200}{50} = 24$ km/h.

Q. 140. Which of the following serves as a site of protein synthesis in cells?

(A) Ribosomes

(B) Lysosomes

(D) Golgi apparatus

Answer: (A) Ribosomes

Explanation: Ribosomes are the cellular structures responsible for decoding RNA sequences and synthesizing proteins.

Q. 141. What is the mass of 10 moles of water molecules?

(A) 9 g

(B) 18 g

(D) 180 g

Answer: (D) 180 g

Explanation: The molar mass of water ( $H_2O$ ) is roughly 18 g/mol. Therefore, 10 moles weigh $10 \times 18 = 180$ grams.

Q. 142. Which of the following represents the correct expression for the impulse of a force?

(A) Force/time

(B) Force $\times$ time

(D) Force $\times$ momentum

Answer: (B) Force $\times$ time

Explanation: Impulse is defined as the integral of a force over the time interval for which it acts ( $J = F \times \Delta t$ ).

Q. 143. Which of the following gases is evolved when metal hydrogen carbonates react with acids?

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Oxygen

(D) Hydrogen Sulfide

Answer: (C) Carbon dioxide

Explanation: When acids react with metal carbonates or metal hydrogen carbonates, they produce salt, water, and bubble off Carbon dioxide ( $CO_2$ ) gas.

Q. 144. Which of the following represents the substances in the increasing order of their pH values?

(A) lemon juice, ammonia water, carrot juice, pure water

(B) carrot juice, lemon juice, pure water, ammonia water

(D) lemon juice, carrot juice, pure water, ammonia water

Answer: (D) lemon juice, carrot juice, pure water, ammonia water

Explanation: The order of pH scale is from highly acidic (low pH) to highly basic (high pH). Lemon juice (~pH 2), Carrot juice (~pH 5), Pure water (pH 7), and Ammonia water (~pH 11.6).

Q. 145. Which of the following substances has a triple bond?

(i) Ammonia

(ii) Ozone

(iii) Water

(iv) Ethyne

(v) Carbon mono oxide

(A) Only (i)

(B) (i) (ii) and (iv)

(D) (iv) and (v)

Answer: Carbon monoxide contains a triple bond and Ethyne (Carbon monoxide ( $C\equiv O$ ) is the compound in the list containing a triple bond.)

Q. 146. Which of the following byproducts of anaerobic respiration is responsible for causing muscle cramps in humans?

(A) Lactic acid

(B) Ethanol

(D) Glucose

Answer: (A) Lactic acid

Explanation: During intense exercise, when oxygen is scarce, human muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, converting glucose into lactic acid. The buildup of lactic acid causes muscle fatigue and cramps.

Q. 147. Which of the given represents a saponification reaction?

(A) $CH_3COONa + NaOH + CaO \rightarrow CH_4 + Na_2CO_3$

(B) $CH_3COOH + C_2H_5 + H_2SO_4 \rightarrow CH_3COOC_2H_5 + H_2O$

(D) $CH_3COOC_2H_5 + NaOH \rightarrow CH_3COONa + C_2H_5OH$

Answer: (D) $CH_3COOC_2H_5 + NaOH \rightarrow CH_3COONa + C_2H_5OH$

Explanation: Saponification is the alkaline hydrolysis of an ester. When an ester reacts with a strong base like sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it yields an alcohol and the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid (soap).

Q. 148. Carbohydrates in the plants are stored in the form of:

(A) Glycogen

(B) Starch

(D) Maltose

Answer: (B) Starch

Explanation: Plants synthesize glucose during photosynthesis and store the excess carbohydrates as starch. (Animals store them as glycogen).

Q. 149. Which phylum of animals is also called flatworms?

(A) Porifera

(B) Coelenterata

(D) Nematoda

Answer: (C) Platyhelminthes

Explanation: Platyhelminthes literally translates to “flat worms,” which are simple, unsegmented, bilaterally symmetrical invertebrates.

Q. 150. A Force produces an acceleration of $2.0~m/s^2$ in a body A and $5.0~m/s^2$ in another body B. Find the ratio of the mass of A to the mass of B.

(A) 2.5

(B) 0.4

(D) 5

Answer: (A) 2.5

Explanation: From Newton’s second law, $F = ma$ .

Because the same force is applied: $m_A \times 2.0 = m_B \times 5.0$ .

Therefore, $m_A / m_B = 5.0 / 2.0 = 2.5$ .

Q. 151. Which of the following places is famous for iron mines?

(A) Ludhiana

(B) Kolar

(D) Ranchi

Answer: (C) Kudremukh

Explanation: Kudremukh, located in Karnataka, was one of the largest iron ore mining projects in the world. (Kolar is famous for gold).

Q. 152. A general increase in prices and fall in purchasing value of money is called?

(A) Inflation

(B) Deflation

(D) Fiscal Crisis

Answer: (A) Inflation

Explanation: Inflation is the economic term for a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services, which inherently reduces the purchasing power of money.

Q. 153. The father of green revolution in India is:

(A) Sam Pitroda

(B) M. S. Swaminathan

(D) Durgesh Patel

Answer: (B) M. S. Swaminathan

Explanation: Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan was an agricultural scientist who played a crucial role in introducing and developing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice in India.

Q. 154. The first international earth summit was held at:

(A) New York

(B) Columbo

(D) Delhi

Answer: (C) Rio de Janeiro

Explanation: The first United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Earth Summit, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.

Q. 155. The full form of UNCED is:

(A) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

(B) United Nations Conference on Education and Development

(D) United Nations Conference on Empowerment and Development

Answer: (A) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

Q. 156. Which of the following types of soil is suitable for growing Cashew nut trees?

(A) Arid

(B) Laterite

(D) Red and Yellow

Answer: (B) Laterite

Explanation: Red laterite soils, commonly found in tropical regions like Kerala, Goa, and Karnataka, are well-drained and ideal for cashew nut cultivation.

Q. 157. Manas Tiger Reserve is in:

(A) Kerala

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Assam

Answer: (D) Assam

Explanation: Manas National Park and Tiger Reserve is a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site located in the Himalayan foothills of Assam.

Q. 158. The tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi was built in the 14th century by:

(A) Qutubuddin

(B) Safdar Jung

(D) Nizamuddin

Answer: (C) Iltutmish *(Note: Historically, Hauz Khas (Hauz-i-Alai) was originally built by Alauddin Khalji in the 13th century and rebuilt by Firuz Shah Tughlaq in the 14th. However, “Iltutmish” is the closest matching option frequently found in this specific test’s pattern, likely confusing it with Hauz-i-Shamsi built by Iltutmish).*

Q. 159. In the North Eastern region, the slash and burn agriculture is called:

(A) Bewar

(B) Jhuming

(D) Bringa

Answer: (B) Jhuming

Explanation: Jhum cultivation is the local term used in northeastern Indian states for slash-and-burn shifting agriculture.

Q. 160. Which of the following is a Kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India?

(A) Sesamum

(B) Groundnut

(D) Mustard

Answer: (A) Sesamum

Explanation: Sesamum (sesame/til) is cultivated as a Kharif crop in North India during the monsoons and as a Rabi crop in South India.

Q. 161. Ocean beds are rich in nodules of:

(A) Magnesium

(B) Manganese

(D) Tin

Answer: (B) Manganese

Explanation: Polymetallic nodules scattered widely on the ocean floor are primarily composed of manganese along with iron, nickel, and cobalt.

Q. 162. Which of the following is not correct in the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway?

(A) Delhi-Kolkata

(B) Chennai-Kolkata

(D) Chennai- Delhi

Answer: (D) Chennai- Delhi

Explanation: The Golden Quadrilateral connects the four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The segments run along the perimeter (Delhi-Mumbai, Mumbai-Chennai, Chennai-Kolkata, Kolkata-Delhi). A direct “Chennai-Delhi” highway cuts across the center, and is not a segment of the quadrilateral border itself.

Q. 163. The first expression of Nationalism came with French revolution in:

(A) 1789

(B) 1689

(D) 1648

Answer: (A) 1789

Explanation: The French Revolution, which sparked the modern ideals of nationalism, liberty, and equality, began in the year 1789.

Q. 164. The term ‘suffrage’ means

(A) Patriotism

(B) Liberty

(D) Freedom

Answer: (C) The right to vote

Explanation: Suffrage (or political franchise) refers specifically to the legal right to vote in public, political elections.

Q. 165. Who founded Ramkrishna Mission?

(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(B) Swami Vivekananda

(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Answer: (B) Swami Vivekananda

Explanation: The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 to carry out humanitarian and spiritual work in honor of his guru, Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.

Q. 166. Napoleon was defeated by European powers in the year

(A) 1915

(B) 1815

(D) 1820

Answer: (B) 1815

Explanation: Napoleon Bonaparte was finally and decisively defeated by a coalition of European powers at the Battle of Waterloo in 1815.

Q. 167. The treaty of Constantinople recognized which country as an independent nation?

(A) Greece

(B) France

(D) Poland

Answer: (A) Greece

Explanation: The Treaty of Constantinople, signed in 1832, officially recognized the independence of Greece from the Ottoman Empire.

Q. 168. The political symbol by Le Barbier “eye within the triangle” stands for:

(A) Knowledge

(B) eternity

(D) Freedom

Answer: (A) Knowledge

Explanation: During the French Revolution, the “eye within a triangle radiating light” (the all-seeing eye) was used as a symbol representing knowledge, enlightenment, and reason driving away the clouds of ignorance.

Q. 169. GDP is the total of:

(A) All goods and services

(B) All intermediate goods and services

(D) All intermediate and final goods and services

Answer: (C) All final goods and services

Explanation: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is defined as the total monetary or market value of all the *final* goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific time period. (Intermediate goods are excluded to prevent double counting).

Q. 170. The youth league of Nazi was founded in the year:

(A) 1920

(B) 1922

(D) 1930

Answer: (B) 1922

Explanation: The original Nazi youth organization (which later became the Hitler Youth) was founded in 1922.

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JMI BEd PYQ 2023 || Jamia BEd Previous Year Question with Explanation

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