In This Blog we will cover JMI BEd PYQ 2021 along with answer and Explanation, Complete Jamia BEd Previous year Question Paper 2021 Solution
JMI BEd PYQ with Explanation
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JMI BEd PYQ 2021
BEd 2021 PYQ
Q. 1. Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 8
(D) 17
Answer:
(D) 17
Explanation:
16, 24, and 8 are all even numbers and composite numbers (specifically, multiples of 8). 17 is an odd number and a prime number, making it the odd one out.
Q. 2. Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
(A) X-ray
(B) MRI
(C) Blood test
(D) CT-Scan
Answer:
(C) Blood test
Explanation:
X-ray, MRI, and CT-Scan are all radiological medical imaging techniques used to see inside the body. A blood test is a laboratory analysis of a blood sample, not an imaging technique.
Q. 3. Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
(A) A
(B) O
(C) D
(D) E
Answer:
(C) D
Explanation:
A, O, and E are all vowels in the English alphabet. D is a consonant.
Q. 4. Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
(A) RNMP
(B) PNMO
(C) JFEH
(D) HDCF
Answer:
(B) PNMO
Explanation:
In RNMP, JFEH, and HDCF, the pattern between the letters follows a strict numerical shift in their alphabetical order (-4, -1, +3). PNMO does not follow this exact same spacing pattern (-2, -1, +2).
Q. 5. Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
(A) EbcdA
(B) IfghO
(C) MpqrL
(D) UlmnE
Answer:
(C) MpqrL
Explanation:
In options A, B, and D, the first and last letters are capital vowels (E-A, I-O, U-E). In option C (MpqrL), the first and last letters are capital consonants.
Q. 6. Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
(A) 62-43
(B) 26-43
(C) 84-65
(D) 48-67
Answer:
(B) 26-43
Explanation:
The difference between the numbers in options A, C, and D is 19 in magnitude ($62-43=19$; $84-65=19$; $67-48=19$). For option B, the difference between 43 and 26 is 17.
Q. 7. Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives.
(A) 49-29
(B) 62-43
(C) 83-64
(D) 70-51
Answer:
(A) 49-29
Explanation:
The mathematical difference between the numbers in options B, C, and D is exactly 19. In option A, the difference is $49 – 29 = 20$.
Q. 8. From amongst the given alternatives, select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given below.
(8, 15, 29)
(A) 4, 16, 28
(B) 7, 12, 22
(C) 6, 12, 22
(D) 5, 12, 20
Answer:
(B) 7, 12, 22
Explanation:
The pattern in (8, 15, 29) is $(x \times 2) – 1$. $8 \times 2 – 1 = 15$; $15 \times 2 – 1 = 29$. The closest structural alternating pattern in the choices based on typical logical deduction pairs is found in (B), where differences exhibit a proportional sequence. *(Note: Options provided in source contain slight irregularities for perfect matching, but B is standard)*.
Q. 9. From amongst the given alternatives, select the one in which the set of letters is most like the set of letters given below.
(B, Y, C, X)
(A) EV, F, U
(B) P, M, Q, N
(C) T, U, U, V
(D) A, Z, B, X
Answer:
(A) EV, F, U
Explanation:
The given set (B, Y, C, X) pairs a letter from the beginning of the alphabet with its reverse counterpart from the end (B is 2nd, Y is 25th; C is 3rd, X is 24th). Option A (E, V, F, U) strictly follows this exact inverse pairing logic (E is 5th, V is 22nd; F is 6th, U is 21st).
Q. 10. From amongst the given alternatives, select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given below.
(216, 512, 1000)
(A) 64, 125, 215
(B) 125, 343, 729
(C) 100, 212, 328
(D) 1, 27, 216
Answer:
(B) 125, 343, 729
Explanation:
The original set contains the cubes of consecutive even numbers: $6^3$ (216), $8^3$ (512), and $10^3$ (1000). Option B contains the cubes of consecutive odd numbers: $5^3$ (125), $7^3$ (343), and $9^3$ (729).
Q. 11. Find and fill the blank space with numbers/words which establishes the same relationship as shown in the previous pairs.
729 : 9 :: 343 : ?
(A) 11
(B) 24
(C) 7
(D) 2
Answer:
(C) 7
Explanation:
The relationship is $x^3 : x$. $9^3 = 729$. Similarly, $7^3 = 343$. Therefore, the missing number is 7.
Q. 12. Find and fill the blank space with numbers/words which establishes the same relationship as shown in the previous pairs.
Homoglobin : Iron :: Milk : ?
(A) Calcium
(B) Iron
(C) Magnesium
(D) Zinc
Answer:
(A) Calcium
Explanation:
Iron is a primary, essential mineral component of hemoglobin. Similarly, calcium is a primary, essential mineral component found abundantly in milk.
Q. 13. Choose the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions:
(A) 18-81
(B) 15-36
(C) 25-54
(D) 27-81
Answer:
(C) 25-54
Explanation:
In options A, B, and D, the numbers in the pair are both divisible by 3 (or the sum of their digits equals a multiple of 3/9). In option C, 25 is not divisible by 3, making it structurally odd compared to the others.
Q. 14. Choose the odd numeral pair/group in each of the following questions:
(A) Bad : Good
(B) Lie : Truth
(C) Abstract : Concrete
(D) Volume : Weight
Answer:
(D) Volume : Weight
Explanation:
Bad/Good, Lie/Truth, and Abstract/Concrete are all pairs of direct antonyms. Volume and Weight are different physical properties of matter, but they are not opposites of each other.
Q. 15. If GREAT is coded as ABCDE in a certain language. How can TREAT be coded in the same language.
(A) EBCDE
(B) EABCD
(C) CDEAB
(D) EABDC
Answer:
(A) EBCDE
Explanation:
By mapping the letters directly: G=A, R=B, E=C, A=D, T=E. To spell “TREAT”, we use the corresponding codes: T(E), R(B), E(C), A(D), T(E), which forms EBCDE.
Q. 16. If BUTER is coded as PQRST in a certain language. How can RUBER be coded in the same language.
(A) TSRQP
(B) PQRST
(C) TQPST
(D) TPQST
Answer:
(C) TQPST
Explanation:
By mapping directly: B=P, U=Q, T=R, E=S, R=T. For the word RUBER, the mapped letters are R(T), U(Q), B(P), E(S), R(T). This spells TQPST.
Q. 17. Pointing to a Photograph A said, “Her sister is the mother of my brother’s son B.” How is A related to B?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Niece
Answer:
(B) Uncle
Explanation:
“My brother’s son B” means B is the nephew of A. Therefore, A is the uncle (or father) to B. Based on the standard family relation conventions in such puzzles, A represents the uncle.
Q. 18. Which of the following alternatives shows the correct order of the following words as per English dictionary arrangement of the words.
1. Inside 2. Insect 3. Income 4. Intern 5. Internal
(A) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(C) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
(D) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
Answer:
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
Explanation:
Sorting alphabetically: Income (3) comes first. Then Insect (2). Then Inside (1). Then Intern (4). Finally, Internal (5). The sequence is 3, 2, 1, 4, 5.
Q. 19. Ahmad and Dinesh start a race, and together they run for 60 m. Ahmad turns right and runs 50 m. While Dinesh turns left and runs 30 m. Then Ahmad turns left and runs 70 m. While Dinesh turns right and runs 70 m. How far they are now from each other?
(A) 60 m
(B) 100 m
(C) 80 m
(D) 140 m
Answer:
(C) 80 m
Explanation:
They run 60m straight together. Ahmad turns right (50m) and Dinesh turns left (30m), moving exactly in opposite lateral directions. The distance between them laterally is $50 + 30 = 80m$. They both then turn to face their original forward direction and run 70m parallel to each other. They remain 80m apart.
Q. 20. Complete the series in the given questions by filling the blank space from the given alternatives.
52, 59, 73, __, 94, 107, 115
(A) 80
(B) 78
(C) 83
(D) 89
Answer:
(C) 83
Explanation:
The pattern involves adding the sum of the digits of the current number to itself to get the next number. $52 + (5+2) = 59$. $59 + (5+9) = 73$. $73 + (7+3) = 83$. $83 + (8+3) = 94$. The missing number is 83.
Q. 21. OKPL, HRIS, UEVF, __
(A) XYCB
(B) CBXY
(C) CYBZ
(D) BXCY
Answer:
(D) BXCY
Explanation:
The pattern pairs consecutive alternating sequence logic mapping across sets. B(2) X(24) C(3) Y(25) mirrors the alternating index pairing seen across the cluster groups.
Q. 22. Which of the following option would replace the question mark to maintain the series of shapes?
(A) Figure a
(B) Figure b
(C) Figure c
(D) Figure d
Answer:
(B) Figure b
Explanation:
Based on standard visual rotation and translation rules found in non-verbal series questions, the internal shapes rotate by 90 degrees sequentially. Option (b) correctly continues this progression.
Q. 23. Which of the following can replace the question mark?
20, 5, 18, 8, 16, 11, 14, 14, 12, ?
(A) 10
(B) 17
(C) 13
(D) 18
Answer:
(B) 17
Explanation:
This is an alternating series. The first sequence is 20, 18, 16, 14, 12 (decreasing by 2). The second sequence is 5, 8, 11, 14, ? (increasing by 3). Thus, .
Q. 24. In a line Radha is standing on 15th from front and 9th from back How many people are there in the line?
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 26
Answer:
(A) 23
Explanation:
The total number of people in the line = (Position from front + Position from back) – 1. So, $(15 + 9) – 1 = 24 – 1 = 23$.
Q. 25. In a certain code, BDO is written as 2415, how will CMO be written in same code?
(A) 21315
(B) 2136
(C) 31315
(D) 31513
Answer:
(C) 31315
Explanation:
The code simply concatenates the alphabetical position of each letter. B=2, D=4, O=15 $\rightarrow$ 2415. For CMO: C=3, M=13, O=15 $\rightarrow$ 31315.
Q. 26. Find the correct option for replacing the question mark in the following figure series:
(A) 55
(B) 47
(C) 65
(D) 29
Answer:
(A) 55
Explanation:
The top number is the difference of the squares of the two bottom numbers. For the first figure: . For the second: . For the third: .
Q. 27. Find the correct option for replacing the question mark in the following figure series:
(A) 120
(B) 71
(C) 130
(D) 96
Answer:
(B) 71
Explanation:
Following the derived numerical logic from the interconnected corner properties in this spatial puzzle, the correct mathematical deduction results in 71.
Q. 28. If A means -, B means x, C means + and D means -, then 15B8A4C5D6 means:
(A) 40
(B) 90
(C) 53
(D) 29
Answer:
(D) 29
Explanation:
Substitute the operators: $15 \times 8 \div 4 + 5 – 6$. By BODMAS rule, first divide: $8 \div 4 = 2$. Then multiply: $15 \times 2 = 30$. Add and subtract: $30 + 5 – 6 = 29$.
Q. 29. In the mirror image you saw that it is 9:30. What would be the actual time?
(A) 2:30
(B) 3:30
(C) 6:30
(D) 3:20
Answer:
(A) 2:30
Explanation:
To find the actual time from a mirror image, subtract the mirror time from 11:60 (which is 12:00). $11:60 – 09:30 = 2:30$.
Q. 30. What should be placed on the position of the question mark to build a pattern in the relationships?
Pituitary : Gland :: Thyroxine : ?
(A) Chest
(B) Hormone
(C) Throat
(D) Bone
Answer:
(B) Hormone
Explanation:
The pituitary is classified as a gland. Similarly, thyroxine is classified as a hormone (produced by the thyroid gland).
Q. 31. If in a teacher’s class there are some divyang children then the teacher should teach these divyang children.
(A) along with other children
(B) separately in different groups
(C) separately but in same class
(D) separately
Answer:
(A) along with other children
Explanation:
According to the principles of Inclusive Education, divyang (differently-abled) children should be integrated and taught alongside other children in a mainstream classroom environment.
Q. 32. Which of the following statements is correct about multiple-choice type questions?
(A) They are more objective
(B) They are less objective
(C) They are more subjective
(D) They evaluate performance
Answer:
(A) They are more objective
Explanation:
Multiple-choice questions have predetermined, specific correct answers that leave no room for the examiner’s personal bias, making them highly objective.
Q. 33. Which of the following is most important for good teaching?
(A) Content
(B) Teaching skills
(C) Personality
(D) Feedback
Answer:
(B) Teaching skills
Explanation:
While content knowledge is necessary, strong pedagogical and teaching skills are paramount because they determine how effectively that knowledge is transferred and understood by students.
Q. 34. Which of the following should a teacher avoid while addressing students in a classroom?
(A) Clearity in communication
(B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetition of pause
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Repetition of pause
Explanation:
Clarity and voice modulation are excellent communicative traits. However, repetitive pausing breaks the flow of instruction, creates distraction, and should be avoided.
Q. 35. Which of the following is best to ensure your effective presence in the classroom?
(A) To use peer command
(B) To be aggressive in the class
(C) To adopt well-established posture
(D) To be authoritarian
Answer:
(C) To adopt well-established posture
Explanation:
A well-established, confident, and professional posture non-verbally commands respect and ensures an effective, engaging presence in the classroom without needing to resort to aggression or authoritarianism.
Q. 36. Which one of the following best justify the use of teaching aids:
(A) Attracting students’ attention
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes
(D) Effective engagement of students
Answer:
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes
Explanation:
While teaching aids attract attention and engage students, their ultimate pedagogical justification and primary goal is to clarify concepts to optimize the learning outcomes for students.
Q. 37. Teaching effectiveness should be evaluated in terms of:
(A) Coverage of Course
(B) Interest of students
(C) Use of teaching aids in the classroom
(D) Learning outcomes of students
Answer:
(D) Learning outcomes of students
Explanation:
The true measure of effective teaching is not what the teacher does, but what the students successfully learn and achieve, which is reflected in their learning outcomes.
Q. 38. Which of the following attribute of a teacher is most liked by students?
(A) Not to get angry
(B) Unbiased
(C) Listening to the students’ problems
(D) Punctuality
Answer:
(B) Unbiased
Explanation:
An impartial, unbiased, and fair teacher earns the deepest trust and respect from students because it ensures an equitable environment where everyone feels equally valued.
Q. 39. Which of the following is a key behaviour for effective teaching?
(A) Use of student ideas
(B) Structuring
(C) Instructional variety
(D) Questioning
Answer:
(C) Instructional variety
Explanation:
Instructional variety (using different teaching methods, media, and engagement strategies) is a proven key behavior that caters to different learning styles and keeps students actively engaged.
Q. 40. Which is the most important for a teacher while writing on the blackboard?
(A) writing good
(B) writing more
(C) writing in capital letters
(D) Clear visibility of the writing
Answer:
(D) Clear visibility of the writing
Explanation:
The primary functional purpose of writing on a blackboard is to communicate information to the entire class; therefore, the clear visibility and legibility of the text is the most critical factor.
Q. 41. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding children’s learning?
(A) Children may learn through play
(B) Each children is capable of learning
(C) Fear is essential for learning
(D) Children also learn from one another
Answer:
(C) Fear is essential for learning
Explanation:
Fear creates a hostile psychological environment that causes anxiety and stifles cognitive function. A safe, supportive environment is essential for learning, not fear.
Q. 42. A teacher who is not able to draw the attention of his students should
(A) Assess his teaching method and bring improvement in it
(B) Leave the profession of teaching
(C) Find fault in his students to control them
(D) Start dictating class notes
Answer:
(A) Assess his teaching method and bring improvement in it
Explanation:
If students are disengaged, the constructive pedagogical response is for the teacher to reflect on, assess, and adapt their instructional methods to make them more engaging.
Q. 43. Which of the following is the most important aim of education?
(A) Making children literate
(B) All-round development of children
(C) Preparing children for livelihood
(D) Making children obedient citizens
Answer:
(B) All-round development of children
Explanation:
The ultimate and most holistic goal of modern education is the all-round development of a child, encompassing their cognitive, physical, social, emotional, and moral growth.
Q. 44. In which of the following development verbal guidance is least effective?
(A) Concept and facts
(B) Attitude and Values
(C) Relationships
(D) Skill
Answer:
(D) Skill
Explanation:
Physical or practical skills (like swimming, typing, or riding a bike) primarily require hands-on practice, repetition, and experiential learning. Verbal guidance alone is least effective for skill acquisition.
Q. 45. Planning of any educational programme should be done according to:
(A) interest of the learners
(B) need of the learners
(C) capabilities of the learners
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above
Explanation:
A well-designed, learner-centric educational program must holistically integrate the specific interests, fundamental needs, and developmental capabilities of the students it serves.
Q. 46. Which of the following is the most important single factor for the success of a beginning teacher?
(A) Scholarship
(B) Communicative ability
(C) Personality and its ability to relate to the class and to the pupils
(D) Organisational ability
Answer:
(C) Personality and its ability to relate to the class and to the pupils
Explanation:
For a beginning teacher, establishing a strong, empathetic rapport and connecting positively with students through their personality forms the crucial foundation for classroom management and learning.
Q. 47. What will you do, if some of your students misbehave with you in the class?
(A) Report to the Principal
(B) Report to the Parents
(C) Try to improve students’ behaviour through dialogue and discussions
(D) Mobilize other teachers against such students.
Answer:
(C) Try to improve students’ behaviour through dialogue and discussions
Explanation:
The most constructive, pedagogical approach is to resolve conflicts internally by understanding the root cause of the misbehavior through open dialogue and counseling.
Q. 48. If students are not able to reply the answer to a question, you should
(A) give them prompt
(B) Change the question
(C) Stop asking questions
(D) Punish them
Answer:
(A) give them prompt
Explanation:
Providing a prompt or a hint scaffolds the student’s thinking process, gently guiding them toward the correct answer without simply giving it away or discouraging them.
Q. 49. If some of your students pass negative remarks on you, you will:
(A) Scold them
(B) Punish them in the class
(C) Do negative marking while evaluating their answer sheets
(D) Talk to them and be impartial at the time of evaluation
Answer:
(D) Talk to them and be impartial at the time of evaluation
Explanation:
A professional educator handles personal remarks maturely by communicating directly with the students to correct behavior, while strictly maintaining fairness and impartiality in academic evaluations.
Q. 50. If a teacher is unable to answer the question of a student in a class, he should
(A) Feel shy of his ignorance and beg pardon
(B) Rebuke the student and make him disciplined in the class
(C) Simply say that he will answer the question in the next class after through reading
(D) Say that the question is wrong
Answer:
(C) Simply say that he will answer the question in the next class after through reading
Explanation:
It is entirely professional for a teacher to not know everything. Admitting this honestly and promising to research the answer models lifelong learning and intellectual integrity for the students.
Q. 51. What will you do to develop the interest of students in games and sports?
(A) Deliver lecture on the importance of games and sports
(B) Give examples of good players
(C) Will play along with them
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above
Explanation:
Inspiring students requires a multi-faceted approach: lecturing on the benefits, providing aspirational role models (good players), and actively participating with them to lead by example.
Q. 52. A student in a class creates problems for other classmates. What will you do as a teacher?
(A) He will be criticised publicly in the class
(B) He will be punished
(C) Try to collect information regarding the problems
(D) He will be removed from the class
Answer:
(C) Try to collect information regarding the problems
Explanation:
Disruptive behavior often stems from underlying psychological, social, or academic issues. A teacher must first investigate and gather information to address the root cause of the problem constructively.
Q. 53. “Cleanliness Drive” is being observed in your school but some of the students are not contributing in cleaning activities. What will you do as a teacher?
(A) I will myself participate actively in cleaning activities.
(B) Will instruct students to read out some essay written by Mahatma Gandhi on importance of cleanliness
(C) will complain to the principal
(D) Will give some other work to these students
Answer:
(A) I will myself participate actively in cleaning activities.
Explanation:
Leading by example is the most effective way to motivate students. When a teacher actively participates in the physical work, it breaks down ego barriers and inspires students to join in.
Q. 54. Which of the following is important for evaluating the quality of teaching-learning in schools?
(A) Teaching-learning resources
(B) Available teachers and staffs
(C) Students’ achievements
(D) All the above
Answer:
(C) Students’ achievements
Explanation:
While resources and staff are inputs, the true, ultimate indicator of the *quality* and effectiveness of the teaching-learning process is the actual academic and holistic achievement of the students.
Q. 55. Which of the following descriptions best illustrates the use of technology in teaching and learning?
(A) Well decorated classroom with pictures, charts and maps
(B) Classroom with provision of PC and internet connections.
(C) Classroom with electric supply for using electronic gadgets.
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
True integration of technology in a modern classroom requires both the hardware/connectivity (PCs and internet) and the foundational infrastructure (power supply for gadgets) to function.
Q. 56. Schools are considered as social institutions because:
(A) School preserve and inculcate cultural values in the young ones
(B) Schools suggest means of social development
(C) School provides solutions to social problems.
(D) Schools are established by society
Answer:
(A) School preserve and inculcate cultural values in the young ones
Explanation:
Schools act as micro-societies that socialize children, transferring the norms, beliefs, and cultural values of the broader society to the next generation.
Q. 57. During teaching you observe that some students are gossiping on back benches, what will you do?
(A) I will avoid them
(B) Keep on my teaching without taking care of the gossips
(C) I will take pause for a while and then will go on.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) I will take pause for a while and then will go on.
Explanation:
Pausing suddenly creates a silence that naturally draws the class’s attention, subtly signaling to the disruptive students that their behavior has been noticed without requiring an immediate aggressive confrontation.
Q. 58. Which of the following activities is not expected from a school teacher?
(A) Participation in cultural fest
(B) Doing trade or business
(C) Guide pupils to solve their problems
(D) Sponsor eco club, science club, language club etc.
Answer:
(B) Doing trade or business
Explanation:
Engaging in personal commercial trade or business outside of school duties is generally restricted for full-time teachers to prevent conflicts of interest and ensure complete dedication to education.
Q. 59. Which of the following is essential to know for a teacher before starting the teaching process :
(A) Previous knowledge the learners
(B) Socio-cultural background of the learners
(C) Environmental variables of the classroom
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above
Explanation:
Effective pedagogical planning requires a teacher to thoroughly understand their students’ prior knowledge base, their socio-cultural context, and the physical environment in which the teaching will occur.
Q. 60. Good teaching is:
(A) Guiding students to construct their knowledge
(B) Giving class notes to the students
(C) Loud reading by students
(D) Making them disciplined
Answer:
(A) Guiding students to construct their knowledge
Explanation:
Based on constructivist pedagogy, good teaching moves away from simply transmitting facts (like giving notes) and focuses on guiding and facilitating students to actively construct their own understanding.
Q. 61. The medicine 2DG for Corona Treatment is developed by:
(A) Ranbaxy
(B) DRDO
(C) ISRO
(D) Bharat Biotech
Answer:
(B) DRDO
Explanation:
The anti-COVID-19 therapeutic drug 2-deoxy-D-glucose (2-DG) was developed by the Institute of Nuclear Medicine and Allied Sciences (INMAS), a lab of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Q. 62. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee appointed for NEP-2020 which submitted the draft in 2019?
(A) K. Kasturirangan
(B) K. Rangrajan
(C) K. Subramanyam
(D) Narendra Modi
Answer:
(A) K. Kasturirangan
Explanation:
Eminent space scientist and former ISRO chief Dr. K. Kasturirangan chaired the committee that drafted the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
Q. 63. As per the New Education Policy 2020 Secondary level education constitutes:
(A) Class III-VI
(B) Class VI to X
(C) Class IX-X
(D) Class IX-XII
Answer:
(D) Class IX-XII
Explanation:
Under the NEP 2020’s 5+3+3+4 structure, the final 4 years (Classes 9 to 12) constitute the Secondary stage of education.
Q. 64. Which of the following has been appointed recently as the 48th Chief Justice of India?
(A) Justice CV Raman
(B) Justice N V Deshbandhu
(C) Justice N V Ramana
(D) Justice Bikram Singh
Answer:
(C) Justice N V Ramana
Explanation:
Justice Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana was appointed and served as the 48th Chief Justice of India starting in April 2021.
Q. 65. Who has been appointed as the Chief advisor to CM Mamta Benerjee?
(A) Mukul Rai
(B) Alapan Bandyopadhyay
(C) HK Dwidevi
(D) Archana Bose
Answer:
(B) Alapan Bandyopadhyay
Explanation:
Former West Bengal Chief Secretary Alapan Bandyopadhyay was appointed as the Chief Advisor to Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee in 2021 following his retirement.
Q. 66. National Education Day is celebrated on:
(A) 5th September
(B) 11th November
(C) 14th December
(D) 24th October
Answer:
(B) 11th November
Explanation:
National Education Day is celebrated on 11th November to commemorate the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, the first Education Minister of independent India.
Q. 67. Recently published book ‘Sach Kahun To’ is an autobiography of:
(A) Nina Gupta
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Saina Nehewal
(D) MS Dhoni
Answer:
(A) Nina Gupta
Explanation:
“Sach Kahun Toh” is the candid and critically acclaimed autobiography of veteran Indian actress Neena Gupta.
Q. 68. Who is the present governor of Reserve Bank of India?
(A) D. Subbarao
(B) Urijit Patel
(C) Shaktikant Das
(D) Raghuram Rajan
Answer:
(C) Shaktikant Das
Explanation:
Shaktikanta Das assumed charge as the 25th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in December 2018 and has been serving in that capacity.
Q. 69. Oxford-AstraZeneca COVID-19 vaccine is available in India by which trade name?
(A) Covaxine
(B) Covishield
(C) Sputnik
(D) Pfizzer
Answer:
(B) Covishield
Explanation:
The Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine is manufactured locally by the Serum Institute of India and is marketed under the brand name Covishield.
Q. 70. Which of the following variant of Coronavirus identified in June 2021 and is threatening India towards the third wave of the pandemic.
(A) Delta Plus
(B) Delta Minus
(C) Bharat Plus
(D) Biotech Plus
Answer:
(A) Delta Plus
Explanation:
The ‘Delta Plus’ variant (a mutation of the highly transmissible Delta variant) emerged around June 2021, raising major public health concerns regarding a potential third wave in India.
Q. 71. India lost to which of the following countries in WTC-Final held in June 2021?
(A) South Africa
(B) Newzeland
(C) Australia
(D) England
Answer:
(B) Newzeland
Explanation:
India lost to New Zealand in the inaugural ICC World Test Championship (WTC) Final held in Southampton, England in June 2021.
Q. 72. Gyanvapi Mosque is situated at:
(A) Allahabad
(B) Aurangabad
(C) Varanasi
(D) Mathura
Answer:
(C) Varanasi
Explanation:
The historic Gyanvapi Mosque is located adjacent to the Kashi Vishwanath Temple in the city of Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
Q. 73. LM-5 or CZ-5 is a:
(A) Satellite
(B) Heavy-lift Launch Vehicle
(C) Robotics
(D) Fastest computer
Answer:
(B) Heavy-lift Launch Vehicle
Explanation:
The Long March 5 (LM-5 or CZ-5) is a Chinese heavy-lift launch vehicle developed by the China Academy of Launch Vehicle Technology.
Q. 74. The World Feature Energy Summit 2020 was held at:
(A) Abu Dhabi
(B) Paris
(C) London
(D) Tokyo
Answer:
(A) Abu Dhabi
Explanation:
The World Future Energy Summit is a major annual global industry event focused on future energy, cleantech, and sustainability, consistently hosted in Abu Dhabi, UAE.
Q. 75. Which of the following states has signed an MoU with IUCN to include Orchid in the Red List?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Assam
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh, known for its rich biodiversity, signed an MoU with the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) to systematically assess and red-list its vulnerable orchid species.
Q. 76. How many parts are there in the New Education Policy 2020 (NEP-2020)?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer:
(B) 4
Explanation:
The official NEP 2020 document is comprehensively divided into four main parts: School Education, Higher Education, Other Key Areas of Focus, and Making it Happen.
Q. 77. The winner of Miss Universe-2020 is:
(A) Andrea Meza
(B) Julia Gama
(C) Janick Maceta
(D) Mario Lopez
Answer:
(A) Andrea Meza
Explanation:
Andrea Meza from Mexico was crowned Miss Universe 2020 at the pageant held in Florida in May 2021 (delayed due to the pandemic).
Q. 78. Which of the following institutions prepares National Curriculum Framework for School Education?
(A) CBSE
(B) NCTE
(C) NCERT
(D) Ministry of Education
Answer:
(C) NCERT
Explanation:
The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is the apex body in India responsible for designing and publishing the National Curriculum Framework (NCF) for schools.
Q. 79. How much percent of growth in GDP was observed during Q4 of 2020-2021 in India?
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.6
(C) 4.5
(D) 3.5
Answer:
(B) 1.6
Explanation:
Official data released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) showed that India’s GDP grew by 1.6% in the fourth quarter (Jan-March) of the fiscal year 2020-21.
Q. 80. Who has won the ICC men’s ODI Player of the Decade award at ICC Awards 2020?
(A) Virat Kohli
(B) Pat Cummins
(C) Rohit Sharma
(D) Ben Stokes
Answer:
(A) Virat Kohli
Explanation:
Indian cricketer Virat Kohli was named the ICC Men’s ODI Cricketer of the Decade for his prolific run-scoring across the 2010s.
Q. 81. In which of the following states, Assembly Election is NOT due in 2022?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Punjab
(D) Gujarat
Answer:
(D) Gujarat
Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Punjab (along with Goa and Manipur) held state assembly elections in early 2022. Gujarat’s assembly elections were scheduled for late 2022 (December), making this question slightly ambiguous based on timing, but among typical calendar groupings, Gujarat is often separated from the early 2022 cycle.
Q. 82. Who gave the title of ‘Flying Sikh’ to Milkha Singh who recently expired at the age of 91?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) General Ayub Khan
(C) General Zeyaul Haq
(D) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
(B) General Ayub Khan
Explanation:
The title “Flying Sikh” was bestowed upon legendary athlete Milkha Singh by General Ayub Khan of Pakistan in 1960 after Milkha defeated Pakistani sprinter Abdul Khaliq in Lahore.
Q. 83. Who controls Golan Heights today?
(A) Israel
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Syria
(D) Philistine
Answer:
(A) Israel
Explanation:
Israel captured the Golan Heights from Syria during the 1967 Six-Day War and effectively annexed the territory in 1981, currently maintaining full military and administrative control over it.
Q. 84. Joe Biden took oath as the 46th President of United States in:
(A) February 2021
(B) March 2021
(C) December 2020
(D) January 2021
Answer:
(D) January 2021
Explanation:
Joe Biden was inaugurated as the 46th President of the United States on January 20, 2021, per constitutional mandate.
Q. 85. Which of the following cities has won the Smart City India Award 2020?
(A) Indore & Surat
(B) Agra & Indore
(C) Dehradun & Surat
(D) Surat & Agra
Answer:
(A) Indore & Surat
Explanation:
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs declared Indore (Madhya Pradesh) and Surat (Gujarat) as the joint winners of the overall Smart Cities Award for their impressive overall development.
Q. 86. Recently Plasma donation was in news. How much percent of human blood is plasma?
(A) 85%
(B) 65%
(C) 55%
(D) 90%
Answer:
(C) 55%
Explanation:
Blood plasma is the yellowish liquid component of blood that holds the blood cells in whole blood in suspension, constituting approximately 55% of the body’s total blood volume.
Q. 87. Ramdesivir was invented by which of the following pharmaceutical research organisation?
(A) Ranbaxy
(B) Gilead
(C) Cipla
(D) DRDO
Answer:
(B) Gilead
Explanation:
Remdesivir, a broad-spectrum antiviral medication heavily utilized during the COVID-19 pandemic, was originally developed by the American biopharmaceutical company Gilead Sciences.
Q. 88. Who was the Chief Guest on the occasion of India’s Republic Day Celebration 2021?
(A) Cyril Ramaphosa
(B) Jair Bolsonaro
(C) Nguyen Xuan Phuc
(D) None of these
Answer:
(D) None of these
Explanation:
UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson was invited as the Chief Guest for the 2021 Republic Day but cancelled his trip due to a surge in COVID-19 cases in the UK. Therefore, the event took place without a Chief Guest.
Q. 89. Which of the following is being constructed as part of India’s Central Vista Redevelopment Project?
(A) AIIMS Delhi
(B) Parliament Building
(C) Rajiv Chowk
(D) Delhi Metro
Answer:
(B) Parliament Building
Explanation:
The Central Vista Redevelopment Project is a massive ongoing project to revamp India’s central administrative area in New Delhi, the centerpiece of which was the construction of the new Parliament Building.
Q. 90. What is the full form of UAPA?
(A) Unlawful Activities Prevention Act
(B) Unidentified Ammunitions Prevention Act
(C) Unlawful Actions Prevention Act
(D) Unlawful Activities Prohibition Act
Answer:
(A) Unlawful Activities Prevention Act
Explanation:
UAPA stands for the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, which is an Indian law aimed at the effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in India.
Q. 91. The easternmost longitude of India is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer:
(A)
Explanation:
India’s easternmost longitudinal point is located in the Kibithu region in Arunachal Pradesh, which lies at approximately .
Q. 92. The Suez Canal which reduced the distance to Europe from India was opened in :
(A) 1789
(B) 1869
(C) 1914
(D) 1879
Answer:
(B) 1869
Explanation:
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, which officially opened for navigation on November 17, 1869.
Q. 93. The highest peak in Western Ghat is:
(A) Anai Mudi
(B) Mahendragiri
(C) Doda Betta
(D) Nanda Devi
Answer:
(A) Anai Mudi
Explanation:
Anamudi (or Anai Mudi), located in the Indian state of Kerala, is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and South India, at an elevation of 2,695 meters.
Q. 94. Which of the following rivers enters into Bay of Bengal?
(A) Ravi
(B) Sultej
(C) Jhelum
(D) Ganges
Answer:
(D) Ganges
Explanation:
The Ravi, Sutlej, and Jhelum are all tributaries of the Indus River system, which eventually flows into the Arabian Sea. The Ganges flows eastwards and empties into the Bay of Bengal.
Q. 95. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Bajra
(D) Mustard
Answer:
(C) Bajra
Explanation:
Wheat, Barley, and Mustard are winter-sown Rabi crops. Bajra (pearl millet) is sown during the monsoon season, classifying it as a Kharif crop.
Q. 96. Which of the following is a reserve for rhinoceros?
(A) Dhachigam Sanchuary
(B) Corbett National Park
(C) Pakhal Sanchuary
(D) Khaziranga National Park
Answer:
(D) Khaziranga National Park
Explanation:
Kaziranga National Park in Assam is globally famous for hosting two-thirds of the world’s Great One-horned Rhinoceroses.
Q. 97. Jantar Mantar in Delhi was built by:
(A) Maharaja Jai Singh II
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Mohammed Shah
(D) Aurangazeb
Answer:
(A) Maharaja Jai Singh II
Explanation:
The Jantar Mantar observatory in Delhi was built in 1724 by the Rajput king Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II of Jaipur to compile astronomical tables.
Q. 98. Battle of Plassey which paved for the British conquest of Bengal was in the year:
(A) 1756
(B) 1757
(C) 1764
(D) 1792
Answer:
(B) 1757
Explanation:
The decisive Battle of Plassey took place on June 23, 1757, resulting in a crucial victory for the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies.
Q. 99. The Arya Samaj was founded by:
(A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(B) Ramkrishna Paramahansa
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(D) Swami Vivekananda
Answer:
(A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Explanation:
The Arya Samaj is a monotheistic Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based on the belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas, founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
Q. 100. Quit India Movement was launched in the year:
(A) 1920
(B) 1930
(C) 1942
(D) 1911
Answer:
(C) 1942
Explanation:
The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, was launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942.
Q. 101. Which schedules in the constitution is giving the lists of subjects on which the municipalities are given administrative control?
(A) Nineth Schedule
(B) Tenth schedule
(C) Eleventh Schedule
(D) Twelth schedule
Answer:
(D) Twelth schedule
Explanation:
The 12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution, added by the 74th Amendment Act in 1992, contains 18 matters that fall under the administrative control of Municipalities.
Q. 102. The ex officio chairman of Rajya Sabha is:
(A) President
(B) Vice President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker
Answer:
(B) Vice President
Explanation:
Article 64 of the Indian Constitution states that the Vice-President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Q. 103. Which of the following countries is a permanent member of UN Security Council?
(A) Switzerland
(B) People’s republic of China
(C) Japan
(D) Ukraine
Answer:
(B) People’s republic of China
Explanation:
The five permanent members (P5) of the UN Security Council are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
Q. 104. What is the motto incorporated under our National Emblem?
(A) Satyam Shivam
(B) Satyam Shivam Sundaram
(C) Jai Hind
(D) Satyameva Jayate
Answer:
(D) Satyameva Jayate
Explanation:
“Satyameva Jayate” (Truth alone triumphs), a mantra from the ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad, is inscribed below the base of the National Emblem of India.
Q. 105. In which of the following wars the French were completely defeated by the English?
(A) Battle of Wandiwash
(B) Battle of Buxar
(C) Battle of Plassey
(D) Battle of Adayar
Answer:
(A) Battle of Wandiwash
Explanation:
The Battle of Wandiwash (1760) was the decisive engagement in the Third Carnatic War, resulting in the final defeat of the French by the British in India.
Q. 106. Whose prior permission is mandatory to introduce a Money Bill in Parliament in India?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Prime minister
Answer:
(B) President
Explanation:
Under Article 117 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President of India.
Q. 107. The birth rate measures the number of births during a year per:
(A) 100 population
(B) 1000 population
(C) 10000 population
(D) 100000 population
Answer:
(B) 1000 population
Explanation:
The crude birth rate is a demographic measure representing the number of live births occurring during a year per 1,000 individuals in the estimated mid-year population.
Q. 108. When Mahatma Gandhi was assasinated, who said, “None will believe that a man like this in body and soul walked on this earth”
(A) Bertrand Russel
(B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) Albert Einstein
(D) Harry S Truman
Answer:
(C) Albert Einstein
Explanation:
This famous tribute to Mahatma Gandhi was given by the renowned physicist Albert Einstein.
Q. 109. In violation of Salt laws, Gandhiji started movement called:
(A) Swadeshi Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Home Rule Movement
Answer:
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
Explanation:
The 1930 Salt March (Dandi March), which directly defied the British salt tax, marked the launch of the broader Civil Disobedience Movement.
Q. 110. Who was the first chairman of Planning Commission of India?
(A) Dr. S. Radha Krishna
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer:
(C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
The Prime Minister of India acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission, making Jawaharlal Nehru its first chairman upon its creation in 1950.
Q. 111. Nitrogen oxides and Sulphur dioxide
(A) Protect Ozone Layer
(B) helpful in plant growth
(C) are the principal cause of acid rain
(D) deplete Ozone layer
Answer:
(C) are the principal cause of acid rain
Explanation:
When released into the atmosphere, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water and oxygen to form sulfuric and nitric acids, leading to acid rain.
Q. 112. The sugar present in milk is:
(A) Casein
(B) Maltose
(C) Lactose
(D) Fructose
Answer:
(C) Lactose
Explanation:
Lactose is a disaccharide sugar synthesized by mammary glands and is the primary carbohydrate found in mammalian milk.
Q. 113. Cellulose is a polymer of:
(A) Amino Acid
(B) Lipids
(C) Glucose
(D) Sucrose
Answer:
(C) Glucose
Explanation:
Cellulose is a linear polysaccharide polymer consisting of a long chain of several hundred to many thousands of linked β(1→4) D-glucose units.
Q. 114. Congenital diseases are:
(A) diseases present at birth
(B) deficiency diseases
(C) occur during life
(D) spread from one person to another
Answer:
(A) diseases present at birth
Explanation:
A congenital disorder or disease is a medical condition that is present at or before birth.
Q. 115. Sweat glands in human body are primarily concerned with:
(A) removal of excess salts
(B) excretion of nitrogenous wastes
(C) thermoregulation
(D) removal of excess water
Answer:
(C) thermoregulation
Explanation:
Sweating is the body’s primary mechanism for thermoregulation; as the sweat evaporates from the skin, it absorbs heat and cools the body down.
Q. 116. The most abundant element in the atmosphere of earth is:
(A) Argon
(B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Krypton
Answer:
(C) Nitrogen
Explanation:
Nitrogen gas ($N_2$) is the most abundant element in Earth’s atmosphere, making up approximately 78% of the air by volume.
Q. 117. Alloys in which mercury is one of the metals are called:
(A) Amalgams
(B) emulsions
(C) mixtures
(D) solders
Answer:
(A) Amalgams
Explanation:
An amalgam is an alloy of mercury with another metal (e.g., silver, tin, copper).
Q. 118. An element that can form a pentoxide is:
(A) nitrogen
(B) boron
(C) phosphorus
(D) aluminium
Answer:
(C) phosphorus
Explanation:
Phosphorus forms phosphorus pentoxide ( or ) when reacting with excess oxygen. Nitrogen can also form , but phosphorus is the classic pentoxide example often tested.
Q. 119. Conversion of a substance directly from solid to vapour state is known as:
(A) ionization
(B) vaporization
(C) fuming
(D) sublimation
Answer:
(D) sublimation
Explanation:
Sublimation is the phase transition of a substance directly from the solid to the gas phase without passing through the intermediate liquid phase.
Q. 120. Newlands, Mendeleev and Meyers are scientists who contriibuted towards the development of:
(A) Atomic structure
(B) metallurgy
(C) periodic table of elements
(D) Discovery of elements
Answer:
(C) periodic table of elements
Explanation:
John Newlands (Law of Octaves), Dmitri Mendeleev, and Julius Lothar Meyer are historic pioneers who independently developed early iterations of the periodic table of elements.
Q. 121. Red Blood corpuscles are formed in the:
(A) heart
(B) lungs
(C) bone marrow
(D) kidneys
Answer:
(C) bone marrow
Explanation:
Red blood cells (erythrocytes) are produced primarily in the red bone marrow through a process called erythropoiesis.
Q. 122. A convex lens forms a real inverted image of the same size of the object, when the object is at the distance of:
(A) less than f from the lens
(B) equal to f from the lens
(C) equal to 2f from the lens
(D) beyond 2f from the lens
Answer:
(C) equal to 2f from the lens
Explanation:
For a convex lens, placing the object exactly at twice the focal length (2F) produces a real, inverted image of the exact same size at 2F on the other side.
Q. 123. The human eye forms the image of object at its:
(A) cornea
(B) pupil
(C) iris
(D) retina
Answer:
(D) retina
Explanation:
The lens of the eye focuses light to form a real, inverted image on the retina, the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye.
Q. 124. The SI unit of electric potential difference is:
(A) Coulomb
(B) Ampere
(C) Volt
(D) Ohm
Answer:
(C) Volt
Explanation:
The SI unit of electric potential difference (or voltage) is the Volt (V).
Q. 125. The instrument to measure electric current in a circuit is:
(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Galvanometer
(D) Generator
Answer:
(A) Ammeter
Explanation:
An ammeter is a measuring instrument used to measure the electric current flowing in a circuit.
Q. 126. Which of the following is not an example of Biomass energy source?
(A) gobar gas
(B) tidal energy
(C) wood
(D) coal
Answer:
(B) tidal energy
Explanation:
Tidal energy is generated from gravitational forces (the moon and sun), not from organic biological material. While coal is also technically fossilized plant matter rather than renewable biomass, tidal energy is fundamentally non-biological. *(Note: Both B and D are technically not considered modern renewable biomass, but B is purely gravitational).*
Q. 127. The phenomena where concentration of chemicals get accumulated progressively at each trophic level which results in highest concentration of the chemicals in human being who occupy too position in the food chain:
(A) Biological magnification
(B) terrestrial ecosystem
(C) pesticide residue
(D) accumulation of chemicals
Answer:
(A) Biological magnification
Explanation:
Biological magnification (or biomagnification) is the increasing concentration of toxic substances, such as pesticides, in organisms at successively higher trophic levels in a food chain.
Q. 128. Pascal is the unit of:
(A) Temperature
(B) Pressure
(C) Mass
(D) Density
Answer:
(B) Pressure
Explanation:
The Pascal (Pa) is the SI derived unit of pressure, representing one newton of force applied per square meter.
Q. 129. Who was awarded Nobel prize in 1906 in Physics for his discovery of electrons?
(A) E Rutherford
(B) JJ Thomson
(C) Neils Bohr
(D) J Chadwick
Answer:
(B) JJ Thomson
Explanation:
J.J. Thomson was awarded the 1906 Nobel Prize in Physics for his theoretical and experimental investigations regarding the conduction of electricity by gases, leading to the discovery of the electron.
Q. 130. Work done by a friction force is:
(A) always negative
(B) always positive
(C) always zero
(D) either positive or negative depending upon the situation
Answer:
(A) always negative
Explanation:
Because kinetic friction force always acts in the direction opposite to the displacement of the object, the work done by friction is always negative (angle is 180 degrees, cos 180 = -1).
Q. 131. Multiply ?
(A) 581026
(B) 581526
(C) 581536
(D) 481026
Answer:
(B) 581526
Explanation:
Calculate as .
Q. 132. Simplify
(A) 869000
(B) 85900
(C) 849000
(D) 859746
Answer:
(A) 869000
Explanation:
Using the distributive property: .
Q. 133. Multiply:
(A) 34
(B) 340
(C) 3400
(D) 34000
Answer:
(B) 340
Explanation:
Multiplying by 10,000 shifts the decimal point four places to the right: .
Q. 134. Divide 4.2 by 0.006
(A) 700
(B) 70
(C) 7000
(D) 7
Answer:
(A) 700
Explanation:
.
Q. 135. The place value of 3 in 0.08369
(A) 3
(B) $3/100$
(C) $3/1000$
(D) $3/10000$
Answer:
(C) $3/1000$
Explanation:
The digit 3 sits in the thousandths place (three decimal places to the right), representing $3/1000$.
Q. 136. There are 600 students in a school. Each was offered either English or Hindi or both. If 75% was offered English, 45% Hindi, how many students were offered both?
(A) 48
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 120
Answer:
(D) 120
Explanation:
Total percentage = 75% + 45% = 120%. Because the total must be 100%, the overlap (both) is 20%. 20% of 600 = 120 students.
Q. 137. The length and breadth of a square was increased by 30% and 20% respectively. The area of the rectangle so formed exceeds the area of the square by:
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 56%
Answer:
(D) 56%
Explanation:
The new area is proportional to $1.3 \times 1.2 = 1.56$ times the original. This corresponds to an increase of 56%.
Q. 138. The average height of 30 girls out of class of 40 is 160 cms, and that of remaining girls is 156 cms. The average height of the whole class is:
(A) 158 cms
(B) 159.5 cms
(C) 159 cms
(D) 158.5 cms
Answer:
(C) 159 cms
Explanation:
Total height = $(30 \times 160) + (10 \times 156) = 4800 + 1560 = 6360$. Average height = $6360 / 40 = 159$ cm.
Q. 139. The two numbers are in the ratio of 3: 5. If each number is increased by 10, the ratio becomes 5: 7. The numbers are:
(A) 3,5
(B) 7,9
(C) 13, 22
(D) 15,25
Answer:
(D) 15,25
Explanation:
Using 15 and 25 (ratio 3:5). Adding 10 gives 25 and 35, which simplifies to 5:7. Thus, the numbers are 15 and 25.
Q. 140. By selling an article for Rs. 100 one gains rupees 20, then the gain percent is:
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 25%
(D) 30%
Answer:
(C) 25%
Explanation:
Gain is Rs. 20, so the Cost Price (CP) = $100 – 20 =$ Rs. 80. Gain percent = $(20 / 80) \times 100 = 25\%$.
Q. 141. The compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 years is 246. What is the sum?
(A) 2100
(B) 2300
(C) 2350
(D) 2400
Answer:
(D) 2400
Explanation:
Effective CI rate for 2 years at 5% = $5 + 5 + (5 \times 5)/100 = 10.25\%$. Therefore, $10.25\%$ of Principal = 246 $\Rightarrow$ Principal = $246 / 0.1025 = 2400$.
Q. 142. In an examination, it is required to get 36% of maximum marks to pass. A student got 113 marks and declared failed by 85 marks. The maximum marks are:
(A) 500
(B) 550
(C) 640
(D) 1008
Answer:
(B) 550
Explanation:
Passing marks = $113 + 85 = 198$. We know 36% of Maximum marks = 198. Max marks = $198 / 0.36 = 550$.
Q. 143. In a mixture of 75 litres, the ratio of milk to water is 2 : 1. The amount of water to be added to the mixture so that the ratio of milk to water becomes 1 : 2 is
(A) 45 litres
(B) 60 litres
(C) 75 litres
(D) 80 litres
Answer:
(C) 75 litres
Explanation:
Originally, Milk = 50L, Water = 25L. For the new ratio to be 1:2 (Milk:Water), water must be twice the milk, i.e., 100L. So, $100L – 25L = 75$ litres of water needs to be added.
Q. 144. The total marks obtained by Sajid in English and Mathematics are 170. If the difference between his marks in these two subjects is 10, then the ratio of his marks in these subjects is
(A) 7:8
(B) 8:7
(C) 9:8
(D) 9:7
Answer:
(C) 9:8
Explanation:
Let subjects be X and Y. , . Solving yields and . The ratio is 90:80, which simplifies to 9:8.
Q. 145. 10 men can finish a piece of work in 10 days, wherease it takes 12 women to finish it in 10 days. If 15 men and 6 women undertake to complete the work, how many days will they take to complete?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 8
Answer:
(C) 5
Explanation:
10 men = 12 women, meaning 5 men = 6 women. A team of 15 men and 6 women is equivalent to $15m + 5m = 20$ men. If 10 men take 10 days, 20 men take half the time, which is 5 days.
Q. 146. A and B are two towns. Mr. Faruqui covers the distance from A to B on cycle at a speed of 16 km/hour. However, he covers the distance from B to A on foot at 9 km/hour. His average speed during the whole journey is:
(A) $10.25~km/hr$
(B) $11.52~km/hr$
(C) $12.32~km/hr$
(D) $12.5~km/hr$
Answer:
(B) $11.52~km/hr$
Explanation:
Average speed for identical distances = km/hr.
Q. 147. In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If A is 9 years older than B, then the present age of B is:
(A) 19 years
(B) 29 years
(C) 39 years
(D) 49 years
Answer:
(C) 39 years
Explanation:
Let present ages be A and B. and . Substitute A into first equation: .
Q. 148. The area of a rectangle 144 m long is same as that of a square having a side 84 m long. The width of the rectangle is:
(A) 7 m
(B) 14 m
(C) 49 m
(D) 56 m
Answer:
(C) 49 m
Explanation:
Area of square = $84 \times 84 = 7056$. Area of rectangle = $144 \times Width$. So, Width = $7056 / 144 = 49$ meters.
Q. 149. The percentage increase in the surface area of a cube when each side is doubled is :
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 200%
(D) 300%
Answer:
(D) 300%
Explanation:
Surface area is proportional to the square of the side ($a^2$). If the side is doubled (2a), the new area is . An increase from to is an increase of 300%.
Q. 150. The average age of 12 children is 20 years. If the age of one more child is increased, the average is decreased by 1. What is the age of the child added later?
(A) 5 years
(B) 7 years
(C) 8 years
(D) 9 years
Answer:
(B) 7 years
Explanation:
Total age of 12 children = . With 13 children, the average drops to 19, so total age = . The new child’s age = years.
Q. 151. What is language?
(A) Basic Tool for communication
(B) A system of communication with others
(C) Involves expression of ideas using sound and symbols
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above
Explanation:
Language functions simultaneously as a basic tool for communication, a social system for communicating with others, and a medium for expressing ideas using structured symbols and sounds.
Q. 152. What is Multilingualism?
(A) Using any one language
(B) Using two or more language
(C) Three language formula
(D) Using foreign languages in teaching- learning
Answer:
(B) Using two or more language
Explanation:
Multilingualism is the act of using, or promoting the use of, two or more languages by an individual speaker or by a community.
Q. 153. Which of the following is true regarding the statements. “How beautiful is the sky!” It is a/an
(A) Exclamation
(B) Question
(C) Declaration
(D) Contempt
Answer:
(A) Exclamation
Explanation:
The sentence “How beautiful is the sky!” expresses a strong, sudden emotion and ends with an exclamation mark, making it an exclamatory sentence.
Q. 154. If A tells B “Please get me flowers with this money for me.” It is a:
(A) Challenge
(B) Demand
(C) Request
(D) Enquiry
Answer:
(C) Request
Explanation:
The use of the word “Please” grammatically marks the utterance as a polite request rather than a demand.
Q. 155. Here is an announcement made by a teacher, “I have an incredibly special announcement to make. This year three of our students are getting national awards for their academic achievements. They are… We are very proud of this achievement, a true reward for their hard work.” What should be the tone of the teacher’s announcement?
(A) Happy
(B) Excited
(C) Surprised
(D) Sympathetic
Answer:
(B) Excited
Explanation:
Words like “incredibly special announcement” and “very proud” dictate an uplifting, enthusiastic, and excited tone from the teacher sharing great news. *(Note: ‘Happy’ is also close, but ‘Excited’ captures the intense energy of the text).*
Q. 156. Choose the best word to fill in the blank. The company is offering us a 20% _____ on all orders above one lakh Rupees.
(A) Replacement
(B) Discount
(C) Consultation
(D) Interest
Answer:
(B) Discount
Explanation:
In commercial transactions, a percentage reduction applied to a bulk order price is referred to as a “discount”.
Q. 157. Which of the following is not a speaking skill?
(A) Pitch
(B) Volume
(C) creative expression
(D) Voice
Answer:
(C) creative expression
Explanation:
Pitch, volume, and voice are mechanical and acoustic components of speaking. “Creative expression” is a broader cognitive/writing attribute rather than a mechanical speaking skill.
Q. 158. Which of the following is not a language skill?
(A) Listening
(B) Speaking
(C) Reading
(D) Fine motor development
Answer:
(D) Fine motor development
Explanation:
The primary language skills are Listening, Speaking, Reading, and Writing (LSRW). Fine motor development is a physical/neurological developmental milestone, not a linguistic one.
Q. 159. Who is known as father of modern linguistics?
(A) Noam Chomsky
(B) John Herbert
(C) William Robinson
(D) Simon Chomsky
Answer:
(A) Noam Chomsky
Explanation:
Noam Chomsky is widely recognized as the father of modern linguistics due to his revolutionary theories on syntax and universal grammar.
Q. 160. Which of the following indicates that the student is listening to you?
(A) Turning away
(B) Nodding and having eye contact
(C) Looking out of window
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B) Nodding and having eye contact
Explanation:
Nodding and maintaining eye contact are key non-verbal cues demonstrating active listening and engagement.
Q. 161. When someone is telling you about an accident, how will you react?
(A) Look pleased
(B) Look away
(C) Look concerned
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Look concerned
Explanation:
Hearing about an accident generally evokes empathy, making “looking concerned” the appropriate and socially expected human reaction.
Q. 162. Which of the following is false regarding language skills?
(A) There are four skills in language development
(B) These four language skills are inter-related
(C) development of language takes as individual skills
(D) It is not possible to develop language skills in isolation.
Answer:
(C) development of language takes as individual skills
Explanation:
Language skills (Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing) do not develop as perfectly isolated, individual skills; they overlap and develop synergistically.
Q. 163. Identify pair of words from following options that are pronounced alike.
(A) Boat-bought
(B) Sell-sale
(C) Lock-luck
(D) Sea-saw
Answer:
(B) Sell-sale
Explanation:
While none of these pairs are perfect homophones in standard Received Pronunciation, “sell” and “sale” often merge acoustically in certain regional dialects more so than the others. *(Note: This question contains ambiguous pairs, but B is the most standard exam-intended choice for phonetic confusion).*
Q. 164. Choose the word that differs in meaning:
(A) Rude
(B) Angry
(C) Wrathful
(D) Furious
Answer:
(A) Rude
Explanation:
“Angry”, “Wrathful”, and “Furious” are all synonyms describing states of intense rage or madness. “Rude” means impolite, which is different in meaning.
Q. 165. Choose the word differs in meaning
(A) Huge
(B) Big
(C) Vast
(D) Tiny
Answer:
(D) Tiny
Explanation:
“Huge”, “Big”, and “Vast” are synonyms representing a very large size. “Tiny” represents a very small size.
Q. 166. Necessity is the mother of:
(A) Life
(B) Success
(C) Invention
(D) Knowledge
Answer:
(C) Invention
Explanation:
“Necessity is the mother of invention” is a well-known English proverb meaning that when the need for something becomes imperative, you are forced to find ways of getting or achieving it.
Q. 167. Fill in the blanks with appropriate antonyms for the underlined word. Anitha always likes to _____, and does not like to lose.
(A) Fail
(B) Misplace
(C) forget
(D) Win
Answer:
(D) Win
Explanation:
The antonym of “lose” is “win”. Therefore, Anitha likes to win.
Q. 168. The head teacher asked the following question to a student during an interview. Indicate the most appropriate choice as the answer of the student from the given options. “Are you the eldest in the family?”
(A) No, I help my parents in the household activities
(B) Yes Sir, I am thhe best child in the family
(C) No sir, I am the second child of the family
(D) No, I obey my parents in my family
Answer:
(C) No sir, I am the second child of the family
Explanation:
The question asks about birth order (“the eldest”). Option C directly answers this specific question by stating the child’s birth order (“second child”).
Q. 169. Which of the following option gives most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence? The invention of engines made horse driven carriage obsolete.
(A) To increase in price
(B) Efficient
(C) Common
(D) Outdated
Answer:
(D) Outdated
Explanation:
The word “obsolete” means no longer produced or used; out of date or outdated.
Q. 170. Identify the type of description by reading the passage given below. “Yesterday I saw a new patient hurrying along the corridor. He seemed terribly upset, so I did not follow him. Just called him gently. Perhaps later when he feels better, I will be able to talk to him.”
(A) Narration
(B) Recitation
(C) Presentation
(D) Speech
Answer:
(A) Narration
Explanation:
The passage tells a story or recounts an event from a first-person perspective (“I saw…”), which is the defining characteristic of a narration.
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